But why would they have Arab names instead of names from their own language?
So peculiar.
Edit: on further thought maybe we’re ready for a lemmy ask history community. This could have been a great discussion if it started with a question about Latin naming instead of an assumption of cultureal erasure.
Are you saying these folks aren’t Arabs?
But why would they have Arab names instead of names from their own language?
So peculiar.
Edit: on further thought maybe we’re ready for a lemmy ask history community. This could have been a great discussion if it started with a question about Latin naming instead of an assumption of cultureal erasure.
I mean, they all wrote in Arabic, and Ibn Hayyan was an Arab.
Ya that’s kinda what I’m trying to get at. Like Latin, Arabic was useful and so it was used.
If such Latin erased them then arguably such Arabic equally erased them. Or maybe there was no erasure but instead pragmatism 🤷♀️
EDIT: Of COURSE I recommend the comm today…
Me: wow we already have that? can’t wait to be approved!
The comm:
Me: 🤮
Yeah, I picked a fantastic day to recommend the comm.
I guess we have a !askhistorians@piefed.social